<blockquote id="quote"><font size="2" face="Verdana, Arial, Helvetica" id="quote">quote:<hr height="1" noshade id="quote"><i>Originally posted by Astrodelugeologist</i>
<br />Suppose an object (a planet, for example) is rotating, that is, it has some angular momentum.<hr height="1" noshade id="quote"></blockquote id="quote"></font id="quote">That would be rotational angular momentum. The other thread was mostly about orbital angular momentum.
<blockquote id="quote"><font size="2" face="Verdana, Arial, Helvetica" id="quote">quote:<hr height="1" noshade id="quote">If the object is struck by a c-graviton, shouldn't this collision involve some transfer of angular momentum?<hr height="1" noshade id="quote"></blockquote id="quote"></font id="quote">For "c-graviton", substitute "asteroid". All the same rules apply.
<blockquote id="quote"><font size="2" face="Verdana, Arial, Helvetica" id="quote">quote:<hr height="1" noshade id="quote">And would this transfer affect the rotation speed of the c-graviton, or give it an angular velocity relative to the rotating object?<hr height="1" noshade id="quote"></blockquote id="quote"></font id="quote">If the c-graviton strikes something, it is usually absorbed, just as an asteroid would be. But even if it bounces, its average angular momentum transferred is zero because half the hits would increase the spin of the planet and half would decrease it. That is why the origin of dominantly prograde spin for planets is a mystery in the primeval solar nebula hypothesis, although not in the fission hypothesis.
The spin of the gravitons themselves is presently unobservable because it gives rise to no known observable phenomena. -|Tom|-
