What scale of infinity does MM use?

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20 years 8 months ago #9498 by Jan
Reply from Jan Vink was created by Jan
EBTX,

My own intuitive guess would be that the universe is the collection of infinitely countable entities, so one-to-one for each and every object in the cosmos.

I'm not saying this in view of the MM in any way, since only Tom can answer this.

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20 years 8 months ago #9499 by tvanflandern
<blockquote id="quote"><font size="2" face="Verdana, Arial, Helvetica" id="quote">quote:<hr height="1" noshade id="quote"><i>Originally posted by EBTX</i>
<br />Can the set of all particles used in the construction of the universe (considered by MM) be placed in a one to one correspondence with the integers?<hr height="1" noshade id="quote"></blockquote id="quote"></font id="quote">Yes, for all particles of a given size, the count will be aleph-0 (the lowest-order infinity).

<blockquote id="quote"><font size="2" face="Verdana, Arial, Helvetica" id="quote">quote:<hr height="1" noshade id="quote">Or, is there a set of entities (in MM) which cannot be placed in such a one to one correspondence?<hr height="1" noshade id="quote"></blockquote id="quote"></font id="quote">Because every single particle of a given size is divisible into an infinite number of sub-particles, the count of all particles and sub-particles seems analogous to the real numbers, of which there are an infinite number between any two integers. -|Tom|-

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20 years 8 months ago #9504 by EBTX
Replied by EBTX on topic Reply from
Yes, that would seem to be consistent with your theory. Thanks.

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